Why the 2nd Amendment may no longer be revelent to the Federal Government

[BjornF16]

Gents,

Supreme Court rulings are the law of the land. For the entire 18th, 19th and first portion of 20th Centuries, it wasn't even questioned that the "militia" was the entire US citizenry.

From US Supreme Court Ruling in Presser vs People of Illinois (1886):

It is undoubtedly true that all citizens capable of bearing arms constitute the reserved military force or reserve militia of the United States as well as of the States; and, in view of this prerogative of the General Government, as well as of its general powers, the States cannot, even laying the constitutional provision in question [the Second Amendment] out of view prohibit the people from keeping and bearing arms, so as to deprive the United States of their rightful resource for maintaining the public security, and disable the people from performing their duty to the General Government.

Later, the 14th Amendment was passed which made the Bill of Rights apply to states as well as Feds (see Supreme Court ruling in McDonald v Chicago).