Is Gun Ownership a Right?

[keystone183]

That's the key issue. If the Second Amendment were not meant to protect the supply of weapons for the militia, why does it have the prefatory clause?

If it was intended to protect the use of guns for sporting and other civilian use, it seems like it would simply say, "The right to keep and bear firearms shall not be infringed."

Instead it specifies "Arms" (which in the context of the time meant military weapons), and links their possession and use to "well regulated" organized militia units.

Sorry, but no! You have provided no explanation. Had they wanted to protect the supply of weapons for the militia, they would have written, .....the right of the militia to keep and bear arms, shall not be infringed. .... But they didn't.

Now would you like to take another stab at why they found only one amendment necessitated an explanation?