2nd Amendment "rules" should apply to the 14th Amendment
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Originally posted by montana View PostI understand the natural fears that good folks have that an El Paso or a Dayton episode might happen again...
The colonial weapon of choice was the Kentucky long rifle, while British soldiers used their army-issued version of Brown Bessies.
It is a matter of historical fact that the colonists won the war largely by superior firepower.
Second among the personal liberties preserved in the Bill of Rights from impairment by the government was the right to self-defense.
The government's job is to preserve personal liberty.
The people are entitled to own and possess the same arms as the government...
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Originally posted by stanc View Post"Might" happen again? It's not a question of if, but when.
LOL. No. The colonials' primary infantry weapon was a military musket, mostly the British Brown Bess and the French Charleville.
LOL again.
There is no mention of self defense in the Seccond Amendment. Its purpose was to assure that members of State militias would have access to the weapons they were required to own for militia duty.
Also wrong. The function of government is to enforce order in society, and exercise control of the people. This results in restriction -- not preservation -- of individual liberty.
Not according to the Supreme Court.
And another thing, just because the SCOTUS says something is right, doesn't make it so. Obamacare, anyone? Unfortunately the golden rule applies just as well, and just as real. Those who have the gold make the rules...
And I agree with the lols above. History should be remembered accurately or not at all.Nothing kills the incentive of men faster than a healthy sense of entitlement. Nothing kills entitlement faster than a healthy sense of achievement.
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Originally posted by Kswhitetails View PostStanc, I fundamentally disagree with your position on the second. The state militias were made up of individuals; Citizens who were expected to be ready and able to use firearms to defend themselves from oppression from anyone wishing to corrupt their freedom. The entire purpose of amending the constitution this way was to ensure that individuals had access to, ability to train with, and use firearms in defense for as long as necessary between open conflict. This was in order to be prepared to defend themselves from anyone - including government - who wished to disarm them in order to establish the "order and control" you speak of when their liberty was at stake.
Originally posted by Kswhitetails View PostThere was no standing army.
Originally posted by Kswhitetails View PostHow could one expect to re-convene a militia if the citizens had all their weapons confiscated by public decree?
Originally posted by Kswhitetails View PostThe militia was just a group of citizens convened under pseudo military style draft calling men from their homes in times of dire encroachment.
State militias were expected to be functional military units, properly organized, trained, and ready to perform whatever mission was assigned to them.
Nor was it a "pseudo military style draft." It was a real, full-scale military draft that was imposed by the Militia Act of 1792.
Originally posted by Kswhitetails View PostMy understanding was that during the Rev War, most of the men who made up the original militias were recruited in pubs, private house meetings, and barns. All in secret.
Originally posted by Kswhitetails View PostThe militia was the people. That's why it says that "the right of the people bear arms shall not be infringed." And thus, we were all given the protected status of firearm ownership, practice, and use.
Originally posted by Kswhitetails View PostAnd another thing, just because the SCOTUS says something is right, doesn't make it so.Last edited by stanc; 08-17-2019, 04:34 PM.
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